As stated above my inlaws filed secretly filed or bankruptcy in 2012 ( 4 years ago) they also borrowed against their mortgage . They are behind several months on their mortgage and seem to believe that as long as they tell the bank they are selling their house they will be able to stay there. How long will the bank give them before foreclosure actually happens?
"Once a person files for bankruptcy does it prevent foreclosure proceedings?"
https://www.agingcare.com/questions/person-files-for-bankruptcy-does-it-prevent-foreclosure-proceedings-194923.htm
Did you follow up on any of the suggestions made in response to that post? What are the responses?
However, since you state they filed in 2012, the bankruptcy should have been completed by now. That puts a different slant on your first and current question.
And to the best of my knowledge, bankruptcies are not "secret" unless the filing is sequestered by the court. Otherwise pleadings are available to the public.
In addition, you stated in your first post that they:
"are three months behind on the mortgage, and have filed bankruptcy.they want to sell the house"
"Three months" is different from "several months" - how delinquent is the mortgage? How did they "borrow" against their mortgage, when did this happen - before or after filing bankruptcy?
As to how long a bank will allow, only the bank can tell you that.
If you really want answers, it helps to provide them to questions asked by the posters. Reread the responses to your first post - did your in-laws seek counseling? Have they tried to work out an agreement with the bank?
Most of the answers you want need to come from the parties involved, specifically the bank and the bankruptcy attorney.
Why were your in-laws borrowing against their mortgage? Was it a line-of-credit or a Reverse Mortgage? If the in-laws had filed for bankruptcy that meant much of their debt was removed. So did they start spending like there was no tomorrow and are now back to where they were back in 2012?
Are your in-laws under the impression that any debts made after 2012 are wiped off because of bankruptcy.... not realizing the debts were from 2012 and earlier? Or is there an issue where the IRS is using the debts that were wiped off as "income".
Your husband and his parents ignoring this isn't going to make it go away.